In Acts 2:38, they were told to be baptized “in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins” (ASV).
The phrase “in the name of Jesus Christ” means according to his authority or instructions. If you are following the authority of Christ, then you must do what he authorized (instructed).
Jesus instructed baptism as part of the plan of salvation. (Mark 16:16) Please read Luke 24:47 along with Acts 2:5 & 38.
Now, if a person is baptized for another reason than that which Jesus instructed, then he is not following the authority of Christ. Instead, this person would be following a man-made doctrine. Those “teaching as doctrine the commandments of men” have a form of worship that is “vain” or useless in God’s eyes. (Matthew 15:9)
Jesus said he has “all authority” and the apostles were to teach the things he had commanded. If we follow the authority of men for our doctrine, then Jesus no longer has “all authority”.
Baptism must be “in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins”. We cannot be saved by following men.
Okay…what if someone heard the gospel, believed, repented, and trusted Jesus but wasn’t told about baptism being “for the remission of sins”, but their motive was based upon true, sincere faith and trust in the Jesus…and they were baptized…….will not God do the His work in baptism even if they didn’t understand baptism to be the place of forgiveness. To be more specific….what if someone believed their sins were forgiven based upon their faith in Jesus and they get baptized “thinking they are already forgiven: would their baptism be invalid because they thought they were already forgiven??
I don’t understand your scenario completely or I don’t understand how it could occur. I don’t understand how someone trusting Christ and completely understanding baptism would be baptized as a work of their own apart from understanding it as God’s work of forgiveness. Would this person have a perfect understanding of baptism then? I must say that this person does not understand baptism, forgiveness by grace, or their state of sin and condemnation. They must not have heard the Word, believed it, or confessed it. If someone was baptized with this understanding, then they were certainly not immersed for the forgiveness of sins, but just immersed in water in Jesus’ name for something that they could not accomplish. Finally, how could this ever happen?
What if someone believes and trust Jesus and His work, and is baptized not understanding baptism to be the place God does the work? Col. 2:11-12….is their baptism invalid, even though the motive was pure and based upon trusting Christ, or must they understand the doctrine of baptism PERFECTLY/COMPLETELY before its valid?
The Breath of God 
Yes we do. If we don’t love the bible, we are in trouble.
Gotta love the bible!
JoeBama,
Amen. You are absolutely right. Thanks for your comment.
In Acts 2:38, they were told to be baptized “in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins” (ASV).
The phrase “in the name of Jesus Christ” means according to his authority or instructions. If you are following the authority of Christ, then you must do what he authorized (instructed).
Jesus instructed baptism as part of the plan of salvation. (Mark 16:16) Please read Luke 24:47 along with Acts 2:5 & 38.
Now, if a person is baptized for another reason than that which Jesus instructed, then he is not following the authority of Christ. Instead, this person would be following a man-made doctrine. Those “teaching as doctrine the commandments of men” have a form of worship that is “vain” or useless in God’s eyes. (Matthew 15:9)
Jesus said he has “all authority” and the apostles were to teach the things he had commanded. If we follow the authority of men for our doctrine, then Jesus no longer has “all authority”.
Baptism must be “in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins”. We cannot be saved by following men.
Okay…what if someone heard the gospel, believed, repented, and trusted Jesus but wasn’t told about baptism being “for the remission of sins”, but their motive was based upon true, sincere faith and trust in the Jesus…and they were baptized…….will not God do the His work in baptism even if they didn’t understand baptism to be the place of forgiveness. To be more specific….what if someone believed their sins were forgiven based upon their faith in Jesus and they get baptized “thinking they are already forgiven: would their baptism be invalid because they thought they were already forgiven??
I don’t understand your scenario completely or I don’t understand how it could occur. I don’t understand how someone trusting Christ and completely understanding baptism would be baptized as a work of their own apart from understanding it as God’s work of forgiveness. Would this person have a perfect understanding of baptism then? I must say that this person does not understand baptism, forgiveness by grace, or their state of sin and condemnation. They must not have heard the Word, believed it, or confessed it. If someone was baptized with this understanding, then they were certainly not immersed for the forgiveness of sins, but just immersed in water in Jesus’ name for something that they could not accomplish. Finally, how could this ever happen?
…you know me Scott – I always have questions :)
What if someone believes and trust Jesus and His work, and is baptized not understanding baptism to be the place God does the work? Col. 2:11-12….is their baptism invalid, even though the motive was pure and based upon trusting Christ, or must they understand the doctrine of baptism PERFECTLY/COMPLETELY before its valid?