“?An outward sign of an inward grace” sounds biblical but this wording is not in the Bible. What do many mean by “an outward sign of an inward grace”? This phrase is usually used to console consciences in the definition of baptism as an outward sign of an inward grace meaning that baptism is more about the heart. However, Jesus commanded baptism in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit to be His disciple (Matt 28:19–20). Furthermore, the apostle Paul noted that there is one baptism (Eph 4:5).
More Than a Sign
Baptism is not just a sign. Baptism is more than the pattern of the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ where the old self is buried and rises to a newness of life (Rom 6:4–5). Furthermore, baptism unites repentant believers with Christ (Rom 6:3–6). Baptism partakes of the reality signified in the gospel of Jesus’s death, burial, and resurrection. This is the gospel that saves (1 Cor 15:1–4). Baptism is a command of Christ, “While going, make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” (Matt 28:19). Jesus taught, “Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned” (Mark 16:16).
Which baptism is the one that Jesus commanded? Baptism in the name of the Lord is water immersion (Acts 10:47–48). The believer washes away sins at baptism (Acts 22:16). God forgives sins at baptism (Acts 2:38). Baptism is the exact moment that the believer goes from self-condemned into God’s forgiveness. Baptism is a passive activity where God saves and not for one to save oneself by any works. This baptism is an act of subordination and the Bible never calls it “a work.”
Baptism in Jesus’s Name
Is there anything special about the water? No. However, those who baptize are leaders of faith. There is something special and vital about Jesus’s name and His command for the believer to be baptized in His name. A person does work for the forgiveness of one’s sin as though baptism is a work. Baptism is passive in that the believer submits to participate. Christ does the saving, “Christ loved the church and gave Himself up for her, that He might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word, so that He might present the church to Himself in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish” (Eph 5:25–27). Paul expressed, “He [Christ] became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey Him” (Heb 5:9).
Being saved by grace and not by works does not contradict submitting to Christ in baptism (Eph 2:4–9; Col 2:12–13). Baptism is not an individual’s personal work since one does not baptize oneself and baptism is from God. Therefore, these scriptures present that baptism is the point at which Christ cleanses believers of their sins and makes them without spot, wrinkle, or blemish. If what is referred to as “an inward grace” is the forgiveness of sins by Christ and the change of the believer to a new life, Christ is the source of grace at baptism. Some refer to “inward grace” asserting the forgiveness of sins before baptism or others teach that a moving of the Holy Spirit causes repentance and faith before baptism. However, no scriptures teach that salvation is complete without God raising believers from burial in baptism in newness of life (Col 2:12–13).
One Baptism
Some say, “Well, I was already baptized after I was saved” or “I did not feel anything at my baptism like when I was saved.” Both of these baptisms are not the baptism that Christ commanded to be saved. Twelve men who were baptized in John the Baptist’s baptism had to be baptized again into Christ’s baptism (Acts 19:1–7).
How do you know if you were baptized correctly? The Scriptures reveal only one baptism which is immersion within water in the Lord’s name (Eph 4:4; 5:26; Acts 10:43, 47–48). Peter’s preaching in Acts 2:38 provides the instruction to know if you were baptized correctly. Peter proclaimed, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” Acts 2:41 and 47 were necessary for the first converts to Christ. Here are four observations from Acts 2: (1) The first believers repented to be baptized in Jesus’s name (cf. Acts 8:38–39; Rom 6:4; Col 2:12–13). (2) Baptism is in Jesus’s name as Jesus taught (Matt 28:19–20; Acts 2:38). (3) Baptism is for the forgiveness of sins (Acts 2:38; 22:16). (4) Through baptism, God adds the believers to the church (Acts 2:41, 47).
Considering Baptism
Today, church leaders will add believers to their churches apart from the believer’s salvation. Who authorized them to add people when Acts 2 teaches that the Lord adds to the church? However, God adds to the church and any church that one joins apart from salvation is not the church that Christ built and bought with his blood (Matt 16:18; Acts 20:28). Believers want to follow Christ and obey the baptism that He commanded. No one wants to be baptized apart from what Jesus taught, so repentant believers do not want a manmade baptism with invented teachings about cleansing without the forgiveness of sins. Repentant believers do not want to wait for manmade time to be baptized. Believers in the Bible were baptized immediately (Acts 16:25–34). Paul was commanded, “And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name” (Acts 22:16).

It says exactly that in the Zondervan NIV Study Bible. Acts 22:16 “Wash your sins away. Baptism is the outward sign of an inward work of grace.”
“One who believes and is baptized will be saved. One who does not believed will be condemned.”
“For everyone practicing evil hates the light and does not come to the light, lest his deeds should be exposed.”
Jesus’ blood He shed on the cross saves us from our sins.
“Also He spoke this parable to some who trusted in themselves that they were righteous, and despised others.” (Luke 18:9)
Jesus spoke this parable to people who did not yet know who He was/is.
“But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us. Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him.”
When were the people Jesus spoke the parable to saved, before or after He died on the cross?
Anonymous Applepie,
This is not the “Sinner’s Prayer”, which is supposedly the prayer of the lost person for grace and forgiveness of sins.
These are instructions to the saved to keep their salvation, hence 1 John 1:6-9. First John 1:6-9 teaches that for one to remain saved then one must walk in the light and confess their sins to God the Father. One can “fall from grace” (Gal. 5:4). Hebrews 6:4ff teaches this too. Also 1 John 3:4-10 show that one who practices sin is condemned.
Romans 10 Paul was speaking to an audience about the Jewish people who were not saved and his desire that they be saved.
As Jesus taught through parables He gave a great example of a sinner’s prayer.
Luke 18:9-14 “Also He spoke this parable to some who trusted in themselves that they were righteous, and despised others: “Two men went up to the temple to pray, one a Pharisee and the other a tax collector. The Pharisee stood and prayed thus with himself, ‘God, I thank You that I am not like other men–extortioners, unjust, adulterers, or even as this tax collector. I fast twice a week; I give tithes of all that I possess.’ And the tax collector, standing afar off, would not so much as raise his eyes to heaven, but beat his breast, saying, ‘God, be merciful to me a sinner!’ I tell you, this man went down to his house justified rather than the other; for everyone who exalts himself will be humbled, and he who humbles himself will be exalted.”
Matthew 7:7-11 “Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, and you will find; knock, and it will be opened to you. For everyone who asks receives, and he who seeks finds, and to him who knocks it will be opened. Or what man is there among you who, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? Or if he asks for a fish, will he give him a serpent? If you then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father who is in heaven give good things to those who ask Him!”
Julian,
I see the anonymous writer above as a little short-sighted and I am convinced that he not just talking to the Jews, which I think you agree. If only there were a “Sinner’s Prayer” in the New Covenant.
I see your points about the audience, but allow me to suggest that Paul is referring back to what these Christians had done and as you affirm also that these must continue to do. Romans 10:9-10 is often mistranslated, because the verbs are in the aorist tense (past tense). Romans 10:9, “that if you confessed with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believed in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved.” Just as Paul did in Romans 6 where he affirmed how these Christians were freed from sin and resurrected to live with Christ through death to sins (repentance) and baptism burial into Jesus’ death (Rom. 6:2-7). See the death, burial, and resurrection, which is the gospel that saves us (1 Cor. 15:1-4, 2 Thess. 1:7-9).
Concerning calling on the name of the Lord, baptism is certainly eternally tied this action or as some argue that baptism is that action. See http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/597. I am convinced that this is correct that calling on the Lord’s name is baptism in Jesus’ name.
I wish I had more to say on this but to me it is clear. Baptism is to call on the name of the Lord. This is what Peter commanded referring to Joel in Acts 2:21, and yet he did not tell them to pray or say any “sinner’s prayer”. He did teach them to repent and be baptized in Jesus’ name (Acts 2:38). See that these were added to church those were baptized (Acts 2:41) and then later being repetitive those added are called “saved” (Acts 2:47). Now, let me add that confession is essential to this for Jesus commanded baptism and expressed the necessity of confessing faith (Luke 12:8).
Julian,
Romans 10 Paul was speaking about the Jewish people who were not saved and his desire that they be saved.
And calling on the name of the Lord is exactly that, both the Hebrew and Greek words for “call” denote to call, cry, to utter a loud sound, call out, call upon, call upon someone for aid, or to invoke.
Psalms 86:1-7 “A Prayer of David. Bow down Your ear, O Lord, hear me; For I am poor and needy. Preserve my life, for I am holy; You are my God; Save Your servant who trusts in You! Be merciful to me, O Lord, For I cry to You all day long. Rejoice the soul of Your servant, For to You, O Lord, I lift up my soul. For You, Lord, are good, and ready to forgive, And abundant in mercy to all those who call upon You. Give ear, O Lord, to my prayer; And attend to the voice of my supplications. In the day of my trouble I will call upon You, For You will answer me.”
I think that’s about how I understood it. Prayer in Jesus’ name makes sense in that he’s our mediator b/t God and bridges the gap so to speak. So, from a logical point of view, it works to offer prayers in the name of/through the the “Way” to the Father. However, in scripture, this is never a clear command but rather a sporadic pattern and, like you said, there doesn’t seem to be any need of a strong doctrine position on it. I was interested in your take on Romans 10:13 though, b/c I’ve been studying out Romans 10:9-10 and upon closer examination found it to be similar to the Revelation 3:20 misuse in regards to ignoring context. 1st, I found that if one goes through the book of Romans, three times (actually probably more) Paul specifically states his audience (Rom 1:5,7, 6:23, 8:28,38, 10:1 (brothers!) as believers, and not in the modern day (often confused I mean) sense, but rather what it would have meant to him and that’s fellow disciples of Christ/Christians. So, it begs the question of why go through the detail of writing out an appeal to non-Christians on HOW to be saved, to Christians who are already saved. It seems to be inconsistent with the thrust of his message and the flow of his overall argument in Romans. 2nd: Calling on his name is often portrayed in the bible as something God’s people do when in need of deliverance. (Joel 2:32, Psalm 99:5-7, 105:1-3, 116:1-2, etc) However, besides in Acts’ two cases (both reference to Joel 2:32) and in Romans 10, this phrase “call on the Lord” is only present in three (that I found) other places in the N.T., 1 Corinthians 1:1-3, 2 Timothy 2:2, Acts 9:13-14 and this is quite easily seen as believers doing this (and in the ongoing sense, which doesn’t say that couldn’t have done it at conversion though, but rather at the very least, it’s something one continues to do after one’s in a relationship with God). One thing that I’ve been thinking about is the phrase “will be saved” and its interpretation in light of salvation:past, present, and future (i.e. Christians were saved, are being saved, and will be saved) and its Sinner’s Prayer usage restricting its domain to a conversion experience that can be converted to a prayer since there’s “call on” rather than an ongoing relationship of dependence on God. That doesn’t so much as disprove anything, but expands the verse’s application in general. 3rd (more along the line of the 1st) this passage speaks nothing in regards to forgiveness of sins, the Holy Spirit, sin in general or a sharp transition of separated to united with God. Not to deny the possibility of senechdote, but it does raise some serious questions about what it could mean if these are omitted and it seems (to me) to be more addressed to believers (as a promise of the Lord’s deliverance) than a reference to their conversion. 4th Confession in context of persecution. Taking a look at the early church, to confess Christ was most evident in meaning when one was to give confess lordship of Caesar but rather to confess Christ as Lord. This would often result in one’s swift (or painfully long and gruesome) death. Thus, to confess Christ was almost a death sentence unto life and by not denying him before men (meaning that you already have put him on of course Gal 3:26-27) he will not deny you before God. So it seems odd to place an instantaneous conversion experience in what would have been regarded as a confession of a Christ one already knows. Overall though, i was wondering what you think of these things in light of Romans 10:9-10 as it is often used to “battle” baptism (which is really sad, since there’s a great harmony of scripture when all things are considered together) and the implications 1) audience 2) tense of salvation (will be vs are saved) 3)lack of mention of forgiveness, Holy Spirit, sin, etc and 4) historical viewpoint. Like I said, I have been recently considering these and by no means have them perfectly organized or set down, but rather it makes me think about Acts 22:16 more and what “calling on his name” meant to Paul and why he would have said Romans 10:9-10 to the church then. Thanks for your time as this is a veryyyy long post.
I’m curious, what do you mean was one baptized “in Jesus’ name?” In his name as a sign of his authority (i.e. compare with 1 Cor 1 and 3) or you specifically saying unless someone was baptized into the name of Jesus as something stated/understood. This is actually not a question of disagreement, but rather of clarification. I have read a bit in the past concerning rather someone is “baptized into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit” or “baptized into the name of Jesus.” Some say, one is baptized into the name of Jesus as an authority thing, sort of baptism of John vs that of Jesus, and that the F, S, HS is the thing someone would “say.” However, bottom line, I just wanna know your opinion and biblical basis for that opinion. I too have wondered where this “outward sign of an inward grace” came from, perhaps second only to “asking Christ to come into your heart…” Take care!
That’s a good question. Such fundamental questions need to be asked. The common reference throughout Scriptures the phrase of in the name of Jesus is regarding His authority. See Colossians 3:17 and 23. As for public statement, a proclamation of “in Jesus’ name”, is there such mentioned? I know that many often give such a proclamation before baptism and other in other things like prayers in Jesus’ name, but I do not see that in Scriptures though I see no error in it too. I know of Jesus’ instruction of prayer to the disciples in John 14:13-14, 15:16, and 16:23-26 where they are to pray in Jesus’ name (Eph. 5:20). The Apostle John does proclaim twice in 1 John 5:13 that writes “in the name of the Son of God”, and Paul cast out an evil spirit saying “in the name of Jesus Christ” (Acts 16:18). The Apostle Peter preached saying “by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth” (Acts 4:10), and he healed saying “in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth” (3:6). As for baptism, consider also Romans 10:13, which is figurative of Acts 2:21 and 22:16. That’s all know on the subject. I’d interested in what you find.
God bless you.